Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (Held on 11-1-2009)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

(Held on 11-1-2009)

Political Science : Solved Paper

1. Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy ?
(A) Collective responsibility of Executive
(B) Fixed Tenure
(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares
(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights
Ans : (B)
2. The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—
(A) the Legislature is weak
(B) judges are appointed by the President
(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure
(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome
Ans : (C)
3. Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—
(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary
(B) independence of the Executive
(C) separation of powers
(D) sovereignty of the Legislature
Ans : (B)
4. “Politics is struggle for power”, was said by—
(A) Morgenthau
(B) Quincy Wright
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
Ans : (A)
5. “Politics is concerned with the authoritative allocation of values for a society.” This definition of politics has been given by—
(A) David Easton
(B) Harold Lasswell
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (A)
6. According to Structural-Functional approach which of the following does not constitute ‘input functions’ of a political system ?
(A) Political socialisation
(B) Political development
(C) Interest aggregation
(D) Political communication
Ans : (B)
7. Who of the following is regarded as an exponent of empty liberty ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hegel
(D) Green
Ans : (B)
8. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli ?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Discourses
(C) The Art of War
(D) Behemoth
Ans : (D)
9. The view that “the State is a necessary evil”, is associated with—
(A) Individualists
(B) Anarchists
(C) Marxists
(D) Sophists
Ans : (A)
10. The philosophy that stands diametrically opposite to liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fascism
Ans : (C)
11. Who of the following first propounded the organic theory of State ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Plato
(C) Marx
(D) Herbert Spencer
Ans : (B)
12. Social Contract theory is based on—
(A) Nationalism
(B) Constitutionalism
(C) Individualism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)
13. Who of the following first used the term ‘Socialism’ ?
(A) Kropotkin
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Marx
(D) Bentham
Ans : (B)
14. Which one of the following is not an agency of public opinion ?
(A) Press
(B) Judiciary
(C) Political Party
(D) T.V. and Radio
Ans : (B)
15. The first systematic classification of government was given by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)
16. Which one of the following functions is performed by political parties ?
(A) To render help to poor people
(B) To run hospitals
(C) To manage newspapers
(D) To assist candidates in contesting elections
Ans : (D)
17. ‘The concept of liberty’ includes—
(A) absence of unjust restraints
(B) maximum justice
(C) national liberation
(D) absence of restraints
Ans : (A)
18. The best explanation of ‘Equality’ is—
(A) identity of treatment
(B) parity of remuneration
(C) fulfilment of minimum needs
(D) abiding by rules
Ans : (C)
19. Marxian socialism is called ‘scientific socialism’, because Marx—
(A) considered personal experiences as his laboratory
(B) opposed religion and metaphysical issues
(C) rejected idealistic, vague and utopian assumptions
(D) accepted dictatorship of the proletariat
Ans : (C)
20. The Retributive Theory of Justice is based on—
(A) the principle of deterrent punishment
(B) the principle of revenge
(C) the principle that punishment should aim at reforming the criminals
(D) the principle of ‘hate the sin and not the sinner’
Ans : (B)
21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)
22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)
23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)
24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)
25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)
26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)
27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)
28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)
29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)
30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)
32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)
33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)
34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)
35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)
36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)
37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)
38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)
39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)
40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)
41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)
42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)
43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)
44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)
45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)
46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)
47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)
48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)
49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)
51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)
52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)
53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)
54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)
55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)
56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)
57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)
58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)
59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)
60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)
61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)
62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)
63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)
64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)
65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)
66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)
67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)
68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)
69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)
70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)
71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)
72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)
73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)
74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)
75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)
76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)
77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)
79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)
80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)
81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)
82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)
83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)
84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)
85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)
86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)
87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)
89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)
91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)
92. Which of the following writs literally means : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)
93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)
94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)
95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)
96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)
97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)
98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)
99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)
100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)
101. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) W. Austin
(C) J. Bentham
(D) T. Acquinas
Ans : (B)
102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
(A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
(B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
(C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
(D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
Ans : (D)
103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
(A) Human nature was wicked
(B) Natural rights were in danger
(C) Art and culture were to be preserved
(D) Inequality created the institution of property
Ans : (D)
104. According to Karl Marx, State—
(A) is a result of surplus value
(B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
(C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
(D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
Ans : (C)
105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Thomas Moore
(C) George Sorel
(D) A. R. Orage
Ans : (A)
106. A welfare state is a/an—
(A) democratic state
(B) socialist state
(C) secular state
(D) administrative state
Ans : (A)
107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Proudhoun
(C) C.E.M. Joad
(D) Alexander Gray
Ans : (C)
108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
(A) Democracy and Socialism
(B) Socialism and Marxism
(C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
(D) Marxism and State Socialism
Ans : (C)
109. A socialist state believes in giving—
(A) maximum functions to the State
(B) minimum functions to the State
(C) negative functions to the State
(D) no functions to the State
Ans : (A)
110. Proportional representation is also called as—
(A) MacDonald method
(B) Hare plan
(C) Single voting
(D) List system
Ans : (B)
111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
Ans : (A)
112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
(A) Capitalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Social engineering
(D) Competition
Ans : (C)
113. Fabian socialists believe in—
(A) inevitability of gradualness
(B) non-violence for social status quo
(C) revolutionary reforms
(D) minimum consumption
Ans : (A)
114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
(A) Constitutionalism
(B) Electoral system
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Opposition parties
Ans : (C)
115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
(A) plural voting
(B) professional representation
(C) proportional representation
(D) separate electorates
Ans : (C)
116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
(A) E. Barker
(B) H. Laski
(C) H. Lasswell
(D) A. Appodari
Ans : (B)
117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
(A) Guild socialist
(B) Syndicalist
(C) Fabian socialist
(D) Utopian socialist
Ans : (B)
118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
(A) Hegel
(B) Marx
(C) Mussolini
(D) Mao
Ans : (A)
119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
(A) the nature of state
(B) the role of religion
(C) the utility of wars
(D) the totalitarian character of government
Ans : (D)
120. The socialists consider the state as—
(A) a necessary evil
(B) an unnecessary evil
(C) a divine institution
(D) a positive good
Ans : (D) 
  
Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh, India (India Travel Guides)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (Held on 11-01-2009)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (Held on 11-01-2009)

Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)


48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)
77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)
78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)
79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)
80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)
81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)
82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)
83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)
Testing, testing ... think you take a lot of exams? Not compared to what students in India endure to get into college.(INTERNATIONAL): An article from: New York Times Upfront

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)
85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)
86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)
87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)
88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)
89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)
90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)
91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)
92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)
93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)
94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)
95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)
96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)
97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)
98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)
99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)
100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)
101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)
103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)
104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)
105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)
107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)
108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)
109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)
110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)
111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)
112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)
113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)
114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)
115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)
116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)
117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)
118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)
119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)
120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)