Clerk (First Shift) Exam, 2009

Clerk (First Shift) Exam, 2009

(Held on 22-11-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following
countries is adjudged as the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ for back office support to the world’s major multinationals ?
(A) China
(B) South Africa
(C) Singapore
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the ‘World’s Green, Index’, compiled by various global agencies jointly ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Britain
(E) Japan
Ans : (B)
3. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kg. of wheat/rice per month at @ Rs. 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Agricultural Commodities and Warehousing Act
(C) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act
(D) National Minimum Wages Act
(E) National Food Security Act
Ans : (E)
4. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some ‘mid-air refuellers’ from a global supplier. These ‘mid-air refuellers’ are being procured for which of the following establishments ?
(A) Indian Airlines and Air India
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(D) Pawan Hans
(E) Ministry of Surface Transport
Ans : (B)
5. The Govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society ?
(A) Senior Citizens
(B) Women Employees of Central Government
(C) Farmers
(D) Workers in unorganized sectors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
6. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the ……….
(A) 13th general elections
(B) 14th general elections
(C) 15th general elections
(D) 16th genral elections
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data ?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(B) MTNL
(C) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS)
(D) Association of Cellular Service Providers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Late Y. S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions ?
(A) Chief Minister of a state
(B) Union Cabinet Minister
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Secretary of a State
(E) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
Ans : (A)
9. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world ?
(A) AIDS
(B) Swine Flue
(C) Polio
(D) T.B.
(E) Chikungunya
Ans : (B)
10. Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the present Union Cabinet ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kamalnath
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Ans : (C)
11. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) U N Economic and Social Council
(D) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation
(E) International Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)
12. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as ‘August war’ ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Iran
(C) Slovakia
(D) Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present ?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 5%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) WTO
(C) BRIC
(D) UNO
(E) OPEC
Ans : (E)
15. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(C) Know India Programme
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
16. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as ……….
(A) Faster Growth
(B) Trade Finance
(C) SME Finance
(D) Investment Banking
(E) Financial Inclusion
Ans : (E)
17. Special emphasis by the Govt. of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time ?
(A) Focussed Public Distribution System
(B) Sanitation & Health Services
(C) Rural Employment
(D) Better irrigation facilities
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
18. The Reserve Bank of India is in the process of selling its stake in which of the following agencies /organizations ?
(A) NABARD
(B) Food Corporation of India
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/made with the geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as ……….
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Gross National Saving
(C) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(D) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India ?
(A) Self Help Groups
(B) Vriksha Mitras
(C) Shiksha Sevaks
(D) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
(E) Link Workers
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help ‘Tax payers’ in India ?
(A) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them
(B) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30%
(C) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
22. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers ?
(A) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(B) National Food for Work Programme
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner ?
(A) The Competition Act
(B) The Banking Regulation Act
(C) The Negotiable Instruments Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
Ans : (E)
24. Which of the following is NOT a banking related term ?
(A) Discount
(B) Credit
(C) Reynolds Number
(D) Post Dated Cheque
(E) Time Deposit
Ans : (C)
25. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Abhishek Jha
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) M. C. Mary Kom
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar ?
(A) By God’s Decree
(B) Freedom From Fear
(C) Sunny Days
(D) Story of My Life
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize ?
(A) An Author
(B) A Medical Doctor
(C) An Economist
(D) A Physicist
(E) A world famous Musician
Ans : (E)
28. Which of the following awards is NOT given by the Government of India ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Padma Vibhushan
(C) Ashok Chakra
(D) Kalinga Prize
(E) All are given by the Government of India
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following operations is conducted after a gap of every ten years ?
(A) Economic survey
(B) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(C) Compilation of Human Development Report
(D) Census of Small Scale Enterprises
(E) General Census
Ans : (E)
30. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Bharat Nirman
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. Which of the following is NOT the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India ?
(A) Sprinkler System
(B) Silage System
(C) Drip System
(D) Furrow System
(E) Canal System
Ans : (B)
32. Deep Joshi was given Raman Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of ……….
(A) literature
(B) sports
(C) cinema
(D) journalism
(E) rural development
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton ?
(A) Double Fault
(B) Punch
(C) Follow on
(D) Tee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)
35. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India ?
(A) Operation Flood
(B) Operation Black Board
(C) Co-operative Movement in Milk production
(D) Green Revolution
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Deodhar Trophy
(B) Irani Trophy
(C) Subroto Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) ICC Trophy
Ans : (C)
37. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale ?
(A) A Himalayan Love Story
(B) Soul Mountain
(C) A New World
(D) The Last Hero
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Professional Tax
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Dividend Distribution Tax
(E) Capital Gain Tax
Ans : (B)
39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Bomba Gold Cup
(B) Davis Cup
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Vizzy Trophy
(E) Nehru Trophy
Ans : (B)
40. Who amonst the following was a famous author and director ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Vijay Tendulkar
(C) Bidhanchandra Roy
(D) Bismillah Khan
(E) Vilayat Khan
Ans : (B)

Computer Awareness for Bank other Exams

Computer Awareness for Bank other Exams

1. Lotus Organizer and Corel Central are examples of ____________ software.
A. analytical
B. database
C. presentation
D. PIM
Answer: D 2. For which of the following tasks would PIM software be most useful?
A. Drafting a memo
B. Maintaining a schedule
C. Calculating a budget
D. Keeping track of recipes
Answer: B
3. The smallest unit of information in a database is called a:
A. byte.
B. record.
C. field.
D. cell.
Answer: C
4. In a database of employees, all the information about a particular person would constitute a:
A. file.
B. record.
C. field.
D. table.
Answer: B
5. A table is a collection of:
A. files.
B. worksheets.
C. fields.
D. records.
Answer: D
6. A ____________ is a small program that helps to automate a frequently used series of commands in most productivity software tools.
A. template
B. macro
C. utility
D. wizard
Answer: B
7. If you are using a template in a productivity software application, you are most likely trying to:
A. assign a basic theme or structure to the file with which you are working.
B. perform a series of steps in a time-efficient manner.
C. gain assistance in performing complicated tasks.
D. combine different documents together to form a single integrated whole.
Answer: A
8. Software providers who develop many productivity tools may also provide stripped-down versions that combine the simpler features of these tools bundled together into a(n):
A. software suite.
B. personal information manager.
C. integrated software application.
D. limited software edition.
Answer: C
9. Microsoft Office is an example of a(n):
A. software suite.
B. open-source product.
C. integrated software application.
D. business-management application.
Answer: A
10. When talking to a speech recognition program, the program divides each second of your speech into 100 separate:
A. phonemes.
B. codes.
C. samples.
D. words.
Answer: C
11. A speech recognition system’s codebook values are matched against a database of ____________ as an early step in word construction.
A. phonemes
B. codes
C. samples
D. words
Answer: A
12. Quicken and TurboTax are both personal financial products developed by:
A. Microsoft.
B. Corel.
C. Intuit.
D. Adobe.
Answer: C
13. Individuals who want software to assist in automated checkbook balancing and bill paying for their personal bank and credit card accounts will likely use which of the following software products?
A. Microsoft Project
B. QuickBooks
C. Acrobat
D. Quicken
Answer: D
14. Small business owners who want software to assist in managing accounts payable and receivable will likely use which of the following software products?
A. QuickBooks
B. Business Plan Pro
C. Quicken
D. Microsoft Project
Answer: A
15. If you want software to assist in estimating the time it takes for a sequence of tasks to be accomplished and to track the progress of people working on these tasks, which of the following software products would you use?
A. Microsoft Project
B. Front Page
C. Business Plan Pro
D. Visio
Answer: A
16. Which of the following software products is most appropriate for plotting out your company’s corporate strategy?
A. Microsoft Project
B. Front Page
C. Business Plan Pro
D. Visio
Answer: C
17. The category of software most appropriate for controlling the design and layout of complex documents like newsletters and brochures is:
A. word processing.
B. computer-aided design.
C. Web page authoring.
D. desktop publishing.
Answer: D
18. Which of the following software products would you use in order to enhance the quality of a photograph that you have recently imported from your digital camera, and would likely have been included with the digital camera when you bought it?
A. ArcSoft
B. Visio
C. Dreamweaver
D. TurboCad
Answer: A
19. Drawing flow charts, block diagrams, and other technical graphics is best accomplished using which of the following software products?
A. Jasc Paint Shop Pro
B. Microsoft Visio
C. Macromedia Dreamweaver
D. Adobe Illustrator
Answer: B
20. CAD software is most likely to be used by:
A. Web designers.
B. engineers.
C. project managers.
D. magazine editors.
Answer: B
21. All of the following are tasks performed by the operating system EXCEPT:
A. managing hardware on the computer.
B. controlling the access that application programs have to the CPU.
C. performing housekeeping tasks like file compression and disk defragmentation.
D. providing an interface for users to interact with the computer.
Answer: C
22. The category of operating system that you most likely have running on your desktop or laptop computer at home is a ____________ operating system.
A. real-time
B. single-user, single-task
C. single-user, multi-task
D. multi-user, multi-task
Answer: C
23. The category of operating system that you most likely have running on your PDA computer is a ____________ operating system.
A. real-time
B. single-user, single-task
C. single-user, multi-task
D. multi-user, multi-task
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is an example of a real-time operating system?
A. Lynx
B. MS DOS
C. Windows XP
D. Symbian
Answer: A
25. A real-time operating system is most likely to be used for which of the following tasks?
A. Controlling access to a shared printer in a network
B. Ensuring that the system clock works correctly on a server
C. Managing the access to system files in a laptop computer
D. Controlling the fuel injection system of an automobile engine
Answer: D
26. An essential difference between the operating system that runs a typical desktop computer and the operating system that runs a typical PDA is that:
A. the desktop OS has a graphical user interface whereas the PDA OS does not.
B. the desktop OS can run several programs simultaneously whereas the PDA OS cannot.
C. the desktop OS manages hardware resources whereas the PDA OS does not.
D. the desktop computer has an OS whereas a PDA does not.
Answer: B


27. The MS-DOS operating system is a:
A. graphical user interface, single-tasking operating system.
B. graphical user interface, multi-tasking operating system.
C. command-driven interface, single-tasking operating system.
D. command-driven interface, multi-tasking operating system.
Answer: C
28. Which of the following was an early desktop operating system that included an integrated graphic user interface with point-and-click features?
A. MS-DOS
B. Mac OS
C. Unix
D. Gnome
Answer: B
29. The most recent version of the Mac OS is based on the ____________ operating system.
A. Windows
B. Linux
C. Unix
D. CMOS
Answer: C
30. The ____________ operating system was initially created in the early 1970s at AT&T’s Bell Labs.
A. Linux
B. DOS
C. Unix
D. GNU
Answer: C
31. The essential difference between an operating system like Linux and one like Windows is that:
A. Windows can run with an Intel processor, whereas Linux cannot.
B. Linux is proprietary, whereas Windows is not.
C. any programmer can modify Linux code, which is not permitted with Windows.
D. there are multiple versions of Linux, but only one version of Windows.
Answer: C
32. Which of the following is a correct association between a vendor and an operating system?
A. Redhat ? Linux
B. AT&T ? MS DOS
C. Microsoft ? Unix
D. Novell ? Linux
Answer: A
33. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of open-source operating systems over proprietary versions?
A. Free use and distribution
B. Availability of technical support
C. Availability of source code
D. Ability to modify code
Answer: B
34. Use of icons and windows are characteristic of a ____________ interface.
A. command-driven
B. windows-oriented
C. graphical-user
D. menu-driven
Answer: C
35. The ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time is called:
A. multitasking.
B. multi-processing.
C. multi-operating.
D. multi-paging.
Answer: A
36. The operating system controls access to the CPU by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring CPU utilization.
A. interrupt handler
B. slices of time
C. stack
D. event
Answer: B
37. When a peripheral device needs immediate attention from the operating system, it generates a(n):
A. interrupt.
B. spool.
C. stack.
D. page file.
Answer: A
38. User actions such as keystrokes or mouse clicks are referred to as:
A. interrupts.
B. tasks.
C. events.
D. processes.
Answer: C
39. An interrupt handler is a:
A. location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B. hardware device that manages the interrupts generated by peripheral units.
C. utility program that communicates interrupts to the operating system.
D. special numeric code that indicates the priority of an interrupt.
Answer: D
40. A spooler is a:
A. location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B. queue of print jobs that are waiting to print.
C. program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to process.
D. message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
41. Virtual memory is typically located:
A. in RAM.
B. in the CPU.
C. in a flash card.
D. on the hard disk.
Answer: D
42. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A. maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B. hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C. prevent thrashing in a multi-tasking environment.
D. allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
43. Thrashing is caused by:
A. over-reliance on swapping to virtual memory.
B. insufficient hard disk space.
C. too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D. inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
44. Communication between the operating system and a peripheral device such as a CD-ROM drive or a printer is facilitated by a(n):
A. spooler.
B. network card.
C. device driver.
D. application program interface.
Answer: C


45. Common functions and routines that need to be executed by many computer programs can be made available via a(n) ____________, which prevents the necessity for programmers to duplicate the effort of writing the same type of code.
A. utility program
B. system kernel
C. BIOS directory
D. application program interface
Answer: D
46. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that take place during the boot-up process?
A. Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B. Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C. Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D. Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B
47. The program that is responsible for loading the operating system into RAM is the:
A. BIOS.
B. bootstrap program.
C. device driver.
D. supervisor program.
Answer: A
48. The Basic Input/Output system resides in:
A. RAM.
B. ROM.
C. the CPU.
D. memory cache.
Answer: B
49. When you start up the computer, the boot-up stage at which the BIOS version, manufacturer, and data are displayed on the monitor is called:
A. bootstrap.
B. power-on self test.
C. system configuration.
D. kernel loading.
Answer: B
50. Part of the POST process is to ensure that the test of essential peripheral devices coincides with the hardware configurations that are stored in:
A. ROM.
B. the hard drive.
C. CMOS.
D. cache memory.
Answer: C

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008 (Held on 7-1-2009)

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008 (Held on 7-1-2009)

Political Science : Solved Paper

1. Who among the following supported ‘partyless democracy’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse Tung
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri2. Who among the following identified democracy with corruption, machine politics and gangsterism ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Laski
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) C. W. Mills 3. Who among the following is associated with the ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ ?
(A) Michels
(B) Mosca
(C) Mills
(D) Laski
4. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘mass mind’ ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gassef
5. A constitutional government stands for—
(A) a limited government
(B) a government run according to the provisions of the constitution
(C) a government run according to the wishes of the rulers
(D) a government run according to the wishes of the party bosses
6. Who said, “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.” ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Marx
7. Which one of the following is the main feature of deliberative democracy ?
(A) Parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Executive supremacy
(C) Judicial autonomy
(D) People’s effective participation
8. Which one of the following is not a Political Right ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to equality before Law
(D) Right to form a political party
9. Which one of the following is not a state ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Tibet
(D) Iraq
10. Who said, “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.” ?
(A) Engels
(B) Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky
11. Who among the following was a great supporter of the Divine Theory of Origin of the State ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Hobbes
(D) James I
12. Marx advocated the establishment of a—
(A) Classless society
(B) Stateless society
(C) Casteless society
(D) Classless and Stateless society
13. Marx propounded the theory of class struggle mainly in—
(A) The Economic and Political Manuscript
(B) The Communist Manifesto
(C) Das Capital
(D) The Poverty of Philosophy
14. Which one of the following is not a Civil Right ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to speech
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to hold public office
15. Who said, “Socialism in like a hat that has lost its shape, because everybody wears it.” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Joad
(C) Marx
(D) Gandhi
16. Which one of the following is regarded as a landmark event in the development of socialism ?
(A) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(B) The French Revolution of 1789
(C) The American Declaration of Independence of 1776
(D) The Russian Revolution of 1917
17. Who said, “Means are after all everything. As the means, so the end; there is no walls of separation between means and ends.” ?
(A) Nehru
(B) Marx
(C) Tilak
(D) Gandhi
18. Who called Mahatma Gandhi ‘a half-naked fakir ?
(A) Stalin
(B) Nehru
(C) Roosevelt
(D) Churchill
19. Which one of the following is not a statement of Karl Marx ?
(A) The state will wither away
(B) There will be a classless and stateless society
(C) Capitalism digs its own grave
(D) Globalisation is another form of capitalism
20. Which of the following were the first two states to introduce the Panchayati Raj ?
(A) Rajasthan and Punjab
(B) Rajasthan and Bihar
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
21. Marx borrowed Dialectical Method from—
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hegal
(D) Green
22. In a parliamentary form of government, ministers are appointed by—
(A) the head of the State at his discretion
(B) the head of the government
(C) the legislature
(D) the head of the state on the recommendation of the head of the government
23. Which one of the following is an essential feature of the presidential system ?
(A) Collective responsibility
(B) Fixed term
(C) Accountability to legislature
(D) Nominal head of the state
24. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary form of Government remain in office—
(A) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the head of the state
(B) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the voters
(C) so long as they fulfill promises made to the electorate
(D) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the popular house of the legislature
25. In a parliamentary system, the accountability of the Prime Minister to the Lower House is—
(A) direct and continuous
(B) indirect
(C) intermittent
(D) only during the sitting of the Lower Hosue
26. Bicameralism is an essential feature of—
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Presidential system
(C) Federal system
(D) Unitary system
27. Who gave the Slogan of ‘do or die’ in 1942 ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
28. According to Lucian Pye, the elements of political development are—
(A) Participation, integration and industrialization
(B) Political unification, participation and national welfare
(C) Political unification, economic development and national welfare
(D) Equality, capacity and differentiation
29. Who among the following talked of ‘development trap’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Fred Riggs
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Edward Shils
30. The split between the moderates and the extremists of the Indian National Congress took place at the—
(A) Surat session
(B) Delhi session
(C) Calcutta session
(D) Bombay session
31. The first President of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) A. O. Hume
(B) W. C. Banerjee
(C) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
32. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
(B) It abolished the Federal Court
(C) It introduced bicameralism
(D) It further extended the principle of communal representation
33. Who among the following is an acclaimed analyst of political parties ?
(A) Lasswell
(B) Laski
(C) Huntington
(D) Duverger
34. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of—
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
35. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Rajya Sabha alone
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Joint sitting of Parliament
36. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President of India is elected for a term of five years
(B) He can resign his office by writing under hand addressed to the Prime Minister of India
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall not be a member of any House of Parliament
37. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Lahore session of the Congress and opted a resolution of Purna Swaraj
(B) Simon Commission was appointed in 1927
(C) Dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946
38. Who among the following administered the Oath of Office to Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Chief Justice of Federal Court
39. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 ?
(A) It ended the British rule
(B) It provided for the partition of India
(C) It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India
(D) It abolished the office of the Governor-General
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Union Ministers are appointed by the President of India
(B) They hold office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The President cannot appoint any one not recommended by the Prime Minister
(D) The Constitution provides for individual and collective responsibility of Ministers
41. There is a single Constitution for the Union and the States with the exception of—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
42. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after—
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) six years
43. There were two Deputy Prime Ministers during the Prime Ministership of—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Organisation of the High Courts —Union list
(B) Police —State list
(C) Price control —Concurrent list
(D) Stock exchange —State list
45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Article 17—Abolition of Untouchability
(B) Article 21—Protection of Life and Personal liberty
(C) Article 24—Right to elementary education
(D) Article 29—Protection of culture of minorities
46. Who among the following became the first acting President of India ?
(A) B. D. Jatti
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) M. Hidayatullah
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
47. What is the proper order of the following stages in the enactment of Budget ?
1. Voting of the demands for grants.
2. General discussion.
3. Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(B) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(C) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 3
48. Which one of the following committees does not consist of representatives of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
49. Which one of the following is not the jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(A) Original jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Advisory jurisdiction
50. Who among the following has been Chief Minister for the Longest period ?
(A) Bansilal
(B) N. D. Tiwari
(C) Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jyoti Basu
51. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of a Minister towards a matter of public importance ?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Calling attention notice
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Censure motion
52. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
53. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 46th
54. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
55. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions suggested the creation of local Finance Commission ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission (I)
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
56. Sarkaria Commission was set up for reviewing the relations between the—
(A) President and the Prime Minister
(B) Legislature and the Executive
(C) Executive and the Judiciary
(D) Centre and the States
57. The government of which Prime Minister had fallen in the Lok Sabha during debate for want of just one vote ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) V. P. Singh
58. The traditional view of the scope of International Politics does not include the study of—
(A) International Law
(B) International Organisations
(C) Geo-politics
(D) Political Economy
59. Who among the following uses the terms ‘International Relations’ and ‘International Politics’ interchangeably ?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) John Burton
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Palmer and Perkins
60. Which one of the following is not a natural element of power ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Resources
(C) Population
(D) Geography
61. Who is the exponent of Realist Theory ?
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Martin Shubik
(D) John Burton
62. Who among the following is the exponent of Game theory ?
(A) Martin Shubik
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Palmer and Perkins
(D) Joseph Frankel
63. Which one of the following, according to Morgenthau, is not a vital component of national interest ?
(A) Physical identity
(B) Political identity
(C) Cultural identity
(D) Individual identity
64. Which one of the following Committees has admitted the existence of a nexus between the politicians, bureaucrats and criminals ?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Narshimhan Committee
(D) Kripalani Committee
65. C.T.B.T. was signed in—
(A) 1994
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
66. Which one of the following is not a method of peaceful settlement of disputes ?
(A) Limited arms conflict
(B) Negotiations
(C) Arbitration
(D) Mediation
67. Which one of the following is not a regional organisation ?
(A) NATO
(B) ASEAN
(C) OAU
(D) NPT
68. Which one of the following is not the concern of UNESCO ?
(A) Climate change
(B) Education
(C) Culture
(D) Science
69. The 14th SAARC summit was held at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Beijing
(D) Colombo
70. Who was the first Foreign Minister of India ?
(A) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Sardar Sawarn Singh
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
71. Which one of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel ?
(A) Non-aggression
(B) Non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(C) Peaceful co-existence
(D) Promotion of world peace
72. Which one of the following is not the objective of WTO ?
(A) Trade without discrimination
(B) Fair competition
(C) Price control
(D) Market access
73. Who among the following was elected as President of the UN General Assembly in 1953 ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) B. N. Chakravarty
(D) Krishna Menon
74. Which one of the following is not an element of Democratic Socialism ?
(A) Welfare state
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Social justice
(D) Revolutionary change
75. Who among the following initially mooted the policy of structural adjustments ?
(A) Third World Countries
(B) Developed Countries
(C) United States of America
(D) IMF and World Bank
76. Who among the following talked of ‘Political decay’ ?
(A) Huntington
(B) David Apter
(C) Organski
(D) Lucian Pye
77. A pressure group works for the welfare of—
(A) Weaker sections of the society
(B) All sections of the society
(C) Its members only
(D) Government employees
78. When did the Charter of the United Nations Organisation come into force ?
(A) 24 October, 1950
(B) 24 October, 1944
(C) 24 October, 1946
(D) 24 October, 1945
79. The oldest approach to the study of Political Science is—
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Legal approach
(D) Institutional approach
80. Who among the following defines politics in terms of ‘authoritative allocation of values’ ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Laski
(C) David Easton
(D) Plato
81. “Who gets what, when and how” is the subject matter of politics.
Who among the following held the above view ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Lasswell
(C) Laski
(D) MacIver
82. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism ?
(A) Class struggle
(B) Surplus value
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Materialistic Interpretation of History
83. “The state originated for the bare needs of life and continues in existence for the sake of good life.” These are the words of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Laski
(D) Garner
84. The traditional view of politics is concerned with the study of—
(A) State and Government
(B) Organisations and Groups
(C) Ideologies
(D) Institutions
85. Who among the following is called the ‘Father of Political Science’ ?
(A) Socrates
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Machiavelli
86. “The state is prior to the individual.”
This was the view of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Garner
(D) MacIver
87. Who said that life in the nature of state was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Machiavelli
88. Who among the following supported positive liberty ?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) Karl Marx
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. Laski
89. Which one of the following is not a function of political parties ?
(A) Political socialization
(B) Regulation of behaviour of the people
(C) Interest articulation
(D) Interest aggregation
90. Who among the following regarded right to life, right to liberty and right to property as natural rights ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Mill
91. Who among the following defined law as “a command given by a superior to an inferior” ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Dicey
(D) Bryce
92. Who among the following held the view that equality is unnatural and undesirable ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Gandhi
(D) Laski
93. “Will, not force, is the basis of the state.” These are the words of—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegal
(C) Green
(D) Mill
94. Who among the following is an exponent of popular sovereignty ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Hobbes
(D) Rousseau
95. Austin described the theory of sovereignty in his book—
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Two Treatises on Government
(C) De Republica
(D) Grammar of Politics
96. Who among the following is the author of ‘Aspects of Political Development’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) David Easton
(C) Laski
(D) David Apter
97. According to Herbert Morrison, bureaucracy is the price of—
(A) Monarchy
(B) Federalism
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Parliamentary democracy
98. The traditional home of ‘patronage bureaucracy’ has been—
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) U.K.
99. Which one of the following is not a feature of Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of work
(C) Promotion
(D) Commitment to ruler
100. Who among the following formulated the most systematic doctrine of sovereignty ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
(D) Locke
Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) Right to equality before law is a civil right.
9. (C) Tibet is not a state because it does not possess the sovereignty, which is the most important attribute of state. Although, it has three other attributes of state-government, population and territory.
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (B) The first sentence of the Communist Manifesto, begins with “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.”
14. (D) The right to hold public office is a political right.
15. (B)
16. (D) The Russian Revolution of 1917 was organised by Lenin and was largely based on the ideas of Karl Marx. The Russian Revolution was the first successful socialist revolution in the world, which led to the establishment of the first socialist state in Russia.
17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (D) Globalisation, as a dominant tendency is a phenomenon of late 20th century. This tendency was not visible during Marx’s times.
20. (C) The Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 2nd Oct., 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh also organised Panchayati Raj in 1959 itself. This new pattern of Panchayati Raj was based on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957.
21. (C)
22. (D) India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. In India, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (C) Bicameralism denotes the two chambers of the legislature. In federal system, the central legislature consists of two houses. The Upper House consists of the representatives of the states.
27. (D)
28. (D) According to Lucian Pye, the political development is the result of interaction among three elements—level of equality in general political process, capacity of the political system and level of differentiation in the structures of the system.
29. (B) The concept of ‘development trap’ was given by Fred Riggs, which refers to the imbalance between the elements of equality and capacity in the process of political development.
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (B) The Government of India Act, 1935 did not abolish the Federal Court, but provided for the establishment of a Federal Court under the proposed Federation. However, the Federal part of the Act was never enforced. It should be noted that bicameralism at the central level was introduced by the Act of 1919, however, the Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism at provincial level.
33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (B) The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President and vice-versa.
37. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly whereas, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of Constituent Assembly in 1946.
38. (C) 39. (C)
40. (D) According to Art 75(1), the Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. According to Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, Article 75(3) provides for the collective responsibility of the Ministers, not for their individual responsibility.
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) V. V. Giri was the first acting President from 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969. Thereafter the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, M. Hidayatullah became the acting President from 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969.
47. (A)
48. (A) The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
49. (D) According to Article 143, the Advisory Jurisdiction is given to the Supreme Court.
50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (D) The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 and it submitted its report on Centre-State relations in 1988.
57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (D) NPT or Non-Proliferation treaty, 1968 is a nuclear disarmamemt treaty. It is not an organisation.
68. (A)
69. (A) The 14th SAARC Summit was held on 3-4 April, 2007 and 15th Summit was held on 2-3 August, 2008 at Colombo.
70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B)
74. (D) Democratic socialism believes in peaceful methods of change. It opposes revolutionary changes and violence.
75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (B)
82. (C) The idea of Laissez faire, the non-intervention of State is economic affairs, was given by Adam Smith. This idea is the core of negative liberalism.
83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A)
88. (A) According to Green, the Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing and enjoying.
89. (B) However, it should be noted that the interest articulation is also not the function of political parties in specific sense. Almond has Stated that interest articulation is the function of pressure groups.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) Aristotle did not support the idea of equality among people. In fact, he supported the system of slavery.
93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Exam., 2009

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Exam., 2009

(Held on 29-3-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Phew Dorajee
(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi
(D) Yoko Ono
Ans : (A)
2. Epicentre is concerned with—
(A) Earthquake
(B) Volcano
(C) Cyclone
(D) Land-sliding
Ans : (A)
3. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chemistry
(C) Fluid Mechanics
(D) Astrophysics
Ans : (D)
4. Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquake ?
(A) Richter
(B) Metric
(C) Centigrade
(D) Newton
Ans : (A)
5. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) V. K. Krishna Menon
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
Ans : (A)
6. Sea-coast of which of the following states is the longest ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
7. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force
(B) Rapid Action Force
(C) Reverse Action Force
(D) Repeat Action Force
Ans : (B)
8. Bolometer is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Frequency
(B) Temperature
(C) Velocity
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (B)
9. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)
10. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) AIDS is a retroviral disease
(B) AIDS disease spreads due to homosexual and bisexual relations
(C) AIDS was first diagnosed in 1981 in USA
(D) Due to AIDS, ano-genetal warts are formed
Ans : (C)
11. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Tajikistan
Ans : (D)

12. Who won the U.S. Open Tennis Men’s Singles in August 2008 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
13. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil
(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram
(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following has been appointed as the Secretary of State by Barack Obama, President of U.S.A. ?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Joe Biden
(C) Condoleezza Rice
(D) Ben Porritt
Ans : (A)
15. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008—
(A) Saumika Mishra
(B) Santosh Sen
(C) Amit Kumar
(D) Pappu
Ans : (A)
16. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2006 was awarded by the President of India to—
(A) Tapan Sinha
(B) Madhur Bhandarkar
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (A)
17. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Ans : (D)
18. ‘Jeevan Aastha’—a scheme relating to investment and saving, was launched during 2008-09, by—
(A) Tata AIG
(B) ICICI Prudential
(C) Bajaj Allianz
(D) LIC
Ans : (D)
19. The three medals that Indians won in the Beijing Olympics were in—
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling
(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis
(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
Ans : (A)
20. ATM stands for—
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
Ans : (B)
21. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Justice of a High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Vice President
Ans : (C)
22. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the—
(A) Minister for Planning and Development
(B) Home Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (C)
23. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Barmer
Ans : (D)
24. Which one of the following cricketers has been awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2007 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Saurav Ganguly
(C) M.S. Dhoni
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (C)
25. Garba is a dance form of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)
26. Which one of the following countries has become the world leader in the carbon credit business in 2007 ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) China
Ans : (D)
27. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh
(B) Ajit Pal Singh
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) Milkha Singh
Ans : (D)
28. Find the odd one (with reference of 26th January 2009 awards).
(A) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(B) Harbhajan Singh
(C) Pankaj Advani
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (B)
29. Fundamental Rights are not given to—
(A) Bankrupt persons
(B) Aliens
(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease
(D) Political sufferers
Ans : (B)
30. Which is the lowest layer of the atmosphere ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave
(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
Ans : (A)
32. Why was the name of Kuber Singh, a 17-year old student of G.D. Goenka World School, in the news on 20th January 2009 ?
(A) He was declared as the winner of the Sanjay Chopra Award
(B) He broke the record for fastest memorising of a 9 digit number
(C) He witnessed the Swearingin-Ceremony of President Barack Obama of USA, as an official invitee
(D) He solved the crossword puzzle of the famous USA magazine
Ans : (C)
33. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(D) Five years
Ans : (C)
34. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s support to decentralization of power ?
(A) Decentralisation ensures more participation of the people into democracy
(B) India had decentralisation of power in the past
(C) Decentralisation was essential for the economic development of the country
(D) Decentralisation can prevent communalism
Ans : (C)

35. Consent of the people means consent of—
(A) A few people
(B) All people
(C) Majority of the people
(D) Leader of the people
Ans : (C)
36. For how many categories has A. R. Rehman, the Golden Globe Award Winner for original sound track in the film ‘Slum Dog Millionaire’ been nominated at the Oscars ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Gram Cooperative Society
(D) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans : (C)
38. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party ?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
39. Match the following—
Union Territory
(a) Puducherry
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu
Jurisdiction (High Court)
1. Kerala
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (A)
40. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and nonstatutory body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Election Commission
Ans : (B)
41. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)
42. Deep fried food materials are carcinogenic because they are rich in—
(A) Fats
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Cooking oil
(D) Nicotine
Ans : (A)
43. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc
Ans : (A)
44. If the radius of blood vessels of a person decreases his/her blood pressure will—
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain unaffected
(D) increase for males and decrease for females
Ans : (A)
45. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as—
(A) Neutrophilia
(B) Nephrosis
(C) Necrosis
(D) Neoplasia
Ans : (A)
46. Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as—
(A) Ischemia
(B) Hyperemia
(C) Hemostasis
(D) Hemorrhage
Ans : (A)
47. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Salmonella typhi
Ans : (D)
48. BCG immunization is for—
(A) Measles
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Leprosy
Ans : (B)
49. Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by—
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Minerals
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (B)
50. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin—
(A) A
(B) B1
(C) D
(D) E
Ans : (C)
51. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as—
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Filtration
(C) Flocculation
(D) Water softening
Ans : (D)
52. Major gaseous pollutant of the thermal power station is—
(A) H2S
(B) NH3
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Ans : (D)
53. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by—
(A) Koch
(B) Hansen
(C) Fleming
(D) Harvey
Ans : (B)
54. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture found in India ?
(A) Goa
(B) Calicut
(C) Cannanore
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)
55. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare
2. M. C. Sharma
3. Gajendra Singh
4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
56. Who laid the wreath at the ‘Amar Jawan Jyoti’ (India Gate) on 26th January 2009 ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Defence Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Minister for External Affairs
Ans : (B)
57. The British introduced the railways in India in order to—
(A) Promote heavy industries in India
(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine
(D) Enable Indians to move freely within the country
Ans : (B)
58. According to Dadabhai Naoroji ‘Swaraj’ meant—
(A) Complete independence
(B) Self government
(C) Economic independence
(D) Political independence
Ans : (C)
59. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) R. G. Bhandarkar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) B. G. Tilak
Ans : (A)
60. Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy ?
(A) The third Buddhist Council
(B) The Kalinga War
(C) His embracing of Buddhism
(D) His sending of missionary to Ceylon
Ans : (B)
61. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (D)
62. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal ?
(A) Robert Clive
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck
(D) Cornwallis
Ans : (B)
63. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
64. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Tughlaqabad Fort
(b) Red Fort (at Delhi)
(c) Hauz Khas
(d) The City of Siri
List-II
1. Alauddin Khilji
2. Shah Jahan
3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
4. Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)
65. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Persons—Events
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)
66. Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj Mahal is not correct ?
(A) It is a magnificent mausoleum
(B) It was built by Shah Jahan
(C) It is situated outside Agra Fort
(D) The names of artisans who built it are engraved on it
Ans : (D)
67. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra
(B) Kabul
(C) Lahore
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)
68. The present Indian monetary system is based on—
(A) Gold Reserve System
(B) Proportional Reserve System
(C) Convertible Currency System
(D) Minimum Reserve System
Ans : (D)
69. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered as—
(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Urban Poverty
(D) Rural Poverty
Ans : (A)
70. Full convertibility of a rupee means—
(A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely
(B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees
(C) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees
(D) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply
Ans : (D)
71. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector
4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4
(B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 4
Ans : (B)
72. The term stagflation refers to a situation where—
(A) Growth has no relation with the change in prices
(B) Rate of growth and prices both are decreasing
(C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase
(D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase
Ans : (D)

73. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according to 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
74. The term ‘Green Revolution’ has been used to indicate higher production through—
(A) Creation of grasslands
(B) Planting more trees
(C) Enhanced agricultural productivity per hectare
(D) Creation of gardens in urban areas
Ans : (C)
75. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by—
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P. A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
Ans : (C)
76. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all—
(A) Goods produced in an economy in a year
(B) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year
(C) Final goods produced in an economy in a year
(D) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year
Ans : (D)
77. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves—
(A) Upward to the right
(B) Downward to the right
(C) Horizontally
(D) Vertically
Ans : (A)
78. Production function explains the relationship between—
(A) Initial inputs and ultimate output
(B) Inputs and ultimate consumption
(C) Output and consumption
(D) Output and exports
Ans : (A)
79. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(D) Shri D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)
80. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is approved by the—
(A) National Development Council
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Productivity Council
(D) Ministry of Finance
Ans : (A)
81. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have—
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
82. Nature of unemployment in agriculture in India is—
(A) Only seasonal
(B) Only disguised
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
83. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is—
(A) Saturn
(B) Uranus
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)
84. A soap bubble shows colours when illuminated with white light. This is due to—
(A) Diffraction
(B) Polarisation
(C) Interference
(D) Reflection
Ans : (C)
85. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is—
(A) Terrestrial telescope
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Compound microscope
(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)
86. A person is hurt on kicking a stone due to—
(A) Inertia
(B) Velocity
(C) Reaction
(D) Momentum
Ans : (C)
87. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in—
(A) Inductance
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
Ans : (B)
88. Which of the following is an example for cantilever beam ?
(A) Diving board
(B) Bridge
(C) See-saw
(D) Common balance
Ans : (A)
89. It is difficult to cook rice—
(A) At the top of a mountain
(B) At the sea level
(C) Under a mine
(D) Same anywhere
Ans : (A)

90. A dynamo is a device which—
(A) creates mechanical energy
(B) creates electrical energy
(C) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(D) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Ans : (C)
91. X-rays were discovered by—
(A) Becquerel
(B) Roentgen
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Van Lue
Ans : (B)
92. Which of the following substance is highly plastic ?
(A) Quartz
(B) Mica
(C) Granite
(D) Clay
Ans : (D)
93. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)
94. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called—
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Monouretic
(C) Diuretic
(D) Triuretic
Ans : (C)
95. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are—
(A) Hormones
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Pheromones
(D) Steroids
Ans : (C)

96. The tip of the match-stick contains—
(A) Phosphorus pentoxide
(B) White phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Phosphorus trichloride
Ans : (C)

97. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A.
Column A (Product)
(a) Formic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Tartaric acid
Column B (Source)
1. Lemon
2. Tamarind
3. Ants
(a) (b) (c)

(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 2 1 3
Ans : (B)
98. Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as—
(A) Washing soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Bleaching powder
(D) Soda ash
Ans : (B)
99. An emulsifier is an agent which—
(A) Stabilises an emulsion
(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion
(D) Homogenises an emulsion
Ans : (A)
100. Mortar is a mixture of water, sand and—
(A) Slaked lime
(B) Quick lime
(C) Limestone
(D) Gypsum
Ans : (A)